If Jesus is “Luke 1:32″ then that MUST mean that Mary is “1 Kings 2:19″! Unlike “Jeremiah 13:18″, Our Lady… Our “John 19:27″… will“Revelation 12:1″ for all eternity because, her son is truly the “Daniel 2:37″ who “Daniel 7:13 & 14″ as a “Revelation 5:6″… the very“John1:29″. Just like “1 Samuel 16:13″, whose son was “2 Samuel 7:12-14″ , and whose wife “1 Kings 2:19″… how much more then“Luke 1:35″, who also was “John1:32 & 33″, which makes His mother the “Luke 1:43″, the very “2 Samuel 6:9″, the one for whom “Matthew 20:23″… once again, just like “1 Kings 2:19″ did. coincidence? I think“Matthew 5:17″… after all didn’t she “John 2:5″, and sat “Acts 1:14″? Isn’t that why her “Luke 1:38″, and not her “Luke 2:6″, makes her“Matthew 12:50″? So remember the next time you encounter the“Isaiah 7:14″… do as the“Matthew 4:11″ do when they “Luke 1:28″… for she truly is “Revelation 12:1″ by God’s design!
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God Bless You this Advent Season!
Joe